Infinitely Recurring Events occur with Probability Zero
In this post, we give short proofs for the Borel-Cantelli lemma, which succinctly states that events which reoccur infinitely often in a sequence of events must have probability zero, and one of its consequences: unlikely events under one probability measure is unlikely in any probability measure “dominated” by it. We make all of these concepts precise.
Notation: We work in an arbitrary measure space \((\Omega, \mathcal{F}, P)\) with \(\{A_n\}_{n \in \mathbb{N}}\) a sequence of measurable sets. While we interpret the measure \(P\) as a probability measure and measurable sets as “events” in the outcome space \(\Omega\), there is no explicit requirement that \(P(\Omega) = 1\) for the theory to work. The expectation \(\mathbb{E}\) refers to the integral operator
\[\mathbb{E}[f] = \int_\Omega f(\omega) \: dP(\omega).\]Definition 1: The limit superior of a sequence of measurable sets \(\{A_n\}_{n \in \mathbb{N}}\) is the set
\[\limsup_{n \to \infty} A_n := \cap_{n=1}^\infty \cup_{k \geq n} A_k.\]Intuitively speaking, the limit superior contains the set of events \(A_n\) which occur infinitely often in the sequence \(\{A_k\}_{k \in \mathbb{N}}\) - indeed, any event which occurs finitely often can only be contained within a finite number of the unions \(\cup_{k \geq n} A_k\), and hence cannot be in the intersection of all of those unions. Going off of this intuition, probability theorists may also write this as \(A_n \text{ i.o}\), standing for “\(A_n\) infinitely often”.
Definition 2: A measure \(P\) is said to dominate a measure \(Q\) (written \(P >> Q\)) if
\[P(A) = 0 \implies Q(A) = 0.\]Lemma 1 (Borel-Cantelli Lemma): Suppose \(\sum_{k=1}^n \mathbb{E}[A_n] < \infty\). Then
\[P(\limsup_{n \to \infty} A_n) := P(\cap_{n=1}^\infty \cup_{k \geq n}A_k) = 0.\]Proof: Note that \(\cup_{k \geq n}A_k\) is a decreasing sequence of sets in \(n\), with \(\cup_{k \geq n} A_k \supset \cup_{k \geq m} A)k\) if \(n \geq m\). Hence, by the continuity of measures, we can pull out the limit:
\[P(\cap_{n=1}^\infty \cup_{k \geq n} A_k) = \lim_{n \to \infty} P(\cup_{k \geq n} A_k).\]Now, each for each \(n\), we have
\[P(\cup_{k \geq n} A_k) \leq \sum_{k=n}^\infty P(A_k)\]by the sub-additivity property of measures. Since the total sum \(\sum_{k=1}^\infty P(A_k)\) is assumed to be finite, the tail sums \(\sum_{k = n}^\infty P(A_k)\) must converge to zero as \(n \to \infty\). We conclude that
\[P(\limsup_{n \to \infty} A_n) = 0,\]as we wanted.
Corollary 1 (Unlikely Events are Equally as Unlikely in Dominated Measures):
Suppose \(Q\) is another measure on \(\mathcal{F}\) and \(P\) dominates \(Q\) (i.e., \(P >> Q\)). Then for all \(\varepsilon > 0\), there exists \(\delta > 0\) such that
\[P(A) < \delta \implies Q(A) < \varepsilon.\]We interpret this condition probabilistically as follows: unlikely events under \(P\) forces those same events to be unlikely under any dominated measure \(Q\). This makes sense, but how would we prove this?
Proof: We argue by contradiction. Suppose there exists some \(\varepsilon_0 > 0\) such that for all \(k \in \mathbb{N}\), we have a sequence of measurable sets \(A_k\) with
\[P(A_k) < 2^{-k} \quad \text{but} \quad Q(A_k) \geq \varepsilon_0 > 0.\]Define \(A := \limsup_{n \to \infty} A_n = \cap_{n=1}^\infty \cup_{k \geq n} A_k\). Then
\[Q(A) = Q(\limsup_{n \to \infty} A_n) \\ =^{(*)} \lim_{n \to \infty} Q(\cup_{k \geq n}A_k) \\ \geq^{(**)} Q(A_n) \quad \text{for all } n \in \mathbb{N}, \\ \geq \varepsilon_0 > 0,\]where in Step \((*)\) we used the continuity of the measure \(Q\) (again, the unions of \(A_k\) is a decreasing sequeunce), and in Step \((**)\) we the fact that every union \(\cup_{k \geq n} A_k\) contains \(A_n\). However, we must have \(P(A) = 0\) by the Borel-Cantelli lemma, since \(\sum_{k=1}^\infty P(A_k) < \sum_{k=1}^\infty 2^{-k} < 1 < \infty.\)
This contradicts the fact that \(P >> Q\), since we have a set of measure zero under \(P\) that does not have measure zero under \(Q\). This completes the proof.
That’s all for today’s post!